SY 123 Questions Guide to read textbook chapters 11 to 15

1. _____ theories of personality emphasize the development of personality early in life.

A) Psychoanalytic

B) Trait

C) Behavioral

D) Humanistic

Answer: Psychoanalytic

2. In Freud’s view, the LEAST conscious component of the mind is the:

A) subconscious.

B) id.

C) ego.

D) superego.

Answer: subconscious.

3. Psychoanalytic theory states that defense mechanisms are the job of the:

A) subconscious.

B) id.

C) ego.

D) superego.

Answer: ego

4. During the _____ stage of psychosexual development, conflict may surround _____.

A) oral; weaning

B) anal; autoeroticism

C) phallic; toilet training

D) oral; autoeroticism

Answer: oral; weaning

5. In Jung’s theory, archetypes are contained in the:

A) collective unconscious.

B) preconscious mind.

C) conscious mind.

D) personal unconscious.

Answer: collective unconscious.

6. Tatiana is patient and nonjudgmental. She is original, spontaneous, and flexible. In Maslow’s terms, Tatiana appears to have a(n) _____ personality.

A) transcendent

B) self-actualized

C) archetypal

D) ideal

Answer: self-actualized

7. According to _____, conditions of worth hamper a person’s self-development.

A) Carl Rogers

B) Abraham Maslow

C) Alfred Adler

D) Julian Rotter

Answer: Carl Rogers

8. Sascha believes that his own efforts will ultimately determine whether he finds a good job in his field of study. Sascha appears to have an _____ locus of control.

A) extrinsic

B) ambiguous

C) external

D) internal

Answer: internal

9. A statistical procedure that uncovers the basic dimensions underlying the relationships among many variables is known as _____ analysis.

A) matrix

B) trend

C) factor

D) research

Answer: factor

10. Shannon is active, sociable, and outgoing. Eysenck might describe Shannon as high in:

A) neuroticism.

B) psychoticism.

C) conscientiousness.

D) extraversion.

Answer: extraversion.

11. In the five-factor model of personality, the term _____ refers to how trusting and easygoing a person is.

A) openness

B) conscientiousness

C) extraversion

D) agreeableness

Answer: agreeableness

12. A test that is high in reliability:

A) was developed using representative samples.

B) yields consistent scores.

C) is scored in a uniform, standardized way.

D) measures what it is intended to measure.

Answer: yields consistent scores.

13. Of the personality tests reviewed in the textbook, the _____ is scored in an objective, standardized way.

A) Rorschach Inkblot Test

B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

C) Thematic Apperception Test

D) Big Five

Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

14. _____ created the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire.

A) Gordon Allport

B) Henry Murray

C) Hans Eysenck

D) Raymond Cattell

Answer: Raymond Cattell

15. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory contains:

A) 185 multiple-choice questions.

B) 20 ambiguous pictures.

C) 338 true-false items.

D) a series of inkblots.

Answer: 338 true-false items.

16. According to the textbook, the Myers–Briggs Type Indicator is:

A) reliable but not valid since people tend to get the same result when retested.

B) valid but lacks reliability since test results tend to correlate with job success.

C) both reliable and valid since test results are replicable and accurately predict career choice.

D) neither valid nor reliable since it is a poor predictor of job success and people can end up with different results each time they are tested.

Answer: neither valid nor reliable since it is a poor predictor of job success and people can end up with different results each time they are tested.

17. _____ is the process of cultural adjustment and adaptation, including changes to one’s language, values, cultural behaviors, and sometimes national identity.

A) Cultural polarization

B) Cultural differentiation

C) Deculturalization

D) Acculturation

Answer: Acculturation

18. According to the _____ hypothesis, _____.

A) stress inoculation; moderate stress can be beneficial

B) stress inoculation; only extreme stress can impair health

C) general adaptation; moderate stress can be beneficial

D) general adaptation; only extreme stress can impair health

Answer: stress inoculation; moderate stress can be beneficial

19. A man awaiting the birth of his first child is BEST described as experiencing:

A) no stress.

B) posttraumatic stress disorder.

C) distress.

D) eustress.

Answer: eustress.

20. _____ are experiences that are positive and have the potential to make one happy.

A) Uplifts

B) Hassles

C) Reflexes

D) Stressors

Answer: Stressors

21. In an _____ conflict, two or more favorable alternatives are pitted against each other.

A) approach–avoidance

B) approach–approach

C) avoidance–avoidance

D) avoidance–attribution

Answer: approach–approach

22. The _____ system oversees the sympathetic nervous system’s response to stress.

A) hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal

B) hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid

C) hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal

D) hypothalamic–neurohypophyseal

Answer: hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal

23. The FIRST stage in the general adaptation syndrome is that of: alarm. One is MOST susceptible to illness during the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

A) exhaustion

B) resistance

C) alarm

D) reaction

Answer: alarm

24. When disease-causing invaders threaten the body, the immune system deploys a special army of white blood cells called:

A) megakaryocytes.

B) astrocytes.

C) lymphocytes.

D) dendrites.

Answer: lymphocytes.

25. _____ refers to emotional, mental, and physical fatigue that results from repeated exposure to challenges, leading to reduced motivation, enthusiasm, and performance.

A) Conflict

B) Hardiness

C) Closure

D) Burnout

Answer: Burnout

26. _____ refers to the cognitive, behavioral, and emotional abilities used to manage something that is perceived as difficult or challenging.

A) Shaping

B) Encoding

C) Coping

D) Chunking

Answer: Coping

27. When bad things happen to him, Joe lists all the good things in his life that he is thankful for. Joe’s practice exemplifies _____ coping.

A) primary

B) problem-focused

C) secondary

D) emotion-focused

Answer: emotion-focused

28. Aggressive is to anxious as the Type _____ personality is to the Type _____ personality.

A) A; B

B) A; D

C) D; A

D) D; B

Answer: A; D

29. _____ is NOT among the “3 Cs” of hardiness.

A) Commitment

B) Control

C) Challenge

D) Coping

Answer: Coping

30. Claire extends her left calf then relaxes it, concentrating on the tension leaving that area of her body as she does so. Claire then tenses and relaxes her left quadriceps, again noting the flow of tension from the area. Claire is engaged in:

A) systematic desensitization.

B) meditation.

C) biofeedback.

D) progressive muscle relaxation.

Answer: biofeedback.

31. Edmund Jacobson introduced a technique known as:

A) progressive muscle relaxation.

B) systematic desensitization.

C) aversion therapy.

D) biofeedback.

Answer: progressive muscle relaxation

32. Abusing alcohol is against one’s best interests. Alcohol abuse is therefore considered:

A) atypical.

B) maladaptive.

C) distressing.

D) deviant.

Answer: maladaptive.

33. _____ is a legal determination of the degree to which a person is responsible for his criminal behaviors.

A) Insanity

B) Heritability

C) Hardiness

D) Conscientiousness

Answer: Insanity

34. A(n) _____ is a negative attitude about a group of individuals based on a characteristic they share, such as a psychological disorder.

A) stigma

B) appraisal

C) schema

D) bias

Answer: stigma

35. The first version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders was published in the:

A) 1940s.

B) 1950s.

C) 1960s.

D) 1970s.

Answer: 1950s.

36. Russell has been diagnosed with both bipolar disorder and a substance use disorder. Russell’s case illustrates:

A) etiology.

B) comorbidity.

C) prevalence.

D) concomitance.

Answer: comorbidity.

37. Aidan is sweating and nauseous. His heart is racing, and he feels as if he might die. Aidan is suffering from:

A) panic disorder.

B) social anxiety disorder.

C) specific phobia.

D) generalized anxiety disorder.

Answer: panic disorder.

38. Research indicates that people with panic disorder may have an unusually small:

A) hippocampus.

B) hypothalamus.

C) thalamus.

D) amygdala.

Answer: amygdala.

39. Sally dreads making presentations at work; she feels intensely afraid that her coworkers are evaluating her negatively. She is also apprehensive when she visits restaurants because she believes the other diners are scrutinizing her. Sally seems to suffer from:

A) panic disorder.

B) specific phobia.

C) generalized anxiety disorder.

D) social phobia.

Answer: generalized anxiety disorder.

40. Muscle tension and restlessness often accompany:

A) panic disorder.

B) specific phobia.

C) generalized anxiety disorder.

D) social phobia.

Answer: generalized anxiety disorder

41. Since they provide relief from intrusive, unwanted obsessions, compulsions are maintained by:

A) negative punishment.

B) negative reinforcement.

C) positive punishment.

D) positive reinforcement.

Answer: negative reinforcement

42. Zane has been feeling low for the past month or so. He has little energy and difficulty concentrating. He has gained nearly 10 pounds and sleeps 10 to 11 hours each night. Zane may be diagnosed with _____ disorder.

A) persistent depressive

B) bipolar

C) major depressive

D) generalized anxiety

Answer: major depressive

43. Which statement is TRUE?

A) Major depression is much more prevalent among men than women.

B) Major depression is somewhat more prevalent among men than women.

C) Major depression is equally prevalent among men and women.

D) Major depression is more prevalent among women than men.

Answer: Major depression is more prevalent among women than men.

44. Bipolar I disorder is to bipolar II disorder as _____ is to _____.

A) dysthymia; hypomania

B) dysthymia; major depression

C) hypomania; mania

D) mania; hypomania

Answer: mania; hypomania

45. The MOST common hallucinations in schizophrenia are auditory. People with schizophrenia often experience hallucinations, which are:

A) perceptual experiences that are not real.

B) repetitive, intrusive thoughts or urges.

C) delusions of grandeur.

D) behaviors that are repeated over and over.

Answer: repetitive, intrusive thoughts or urges.

46. Which choice MOST accurately expresses the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia in the general population?

A) less than 0.1%

B) less than 1%

C) about 2%

D) about 5%

Answer: less than 1%

47. Criminal behaviors are MOST closely associated with antisocial personality disorder. Detachment from one’s relationships and a limited range of emotional expression are characteristic of _____ personality disorder.

A) paranoid

B) schizoid

C) antisocial

D) avoidant

Answer: antisocial

48. _____ is an eating disorder identified by significant weight loss, an intense fear of being overweight, a false sense of body image, and a refusal to eat the proper amount of calories to achieve a healthy weight.

A) Anorexia nervosa

B) Bulimia nervosa

C) Muscle dysmorphia

D) Binge-eating disorder

Answer: Anorexia nervosa

49. Deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill began in the:

A) 1920s.

B) 1930s.

C) 1940s.

D) 1950s.

Answer: 1950s.

50. Insight therapies are a type of psychotherapy aimed at increasing awareness of self and the environment. A(n) _____ approach to therapy combines and integrates multiple perspectives.

A) biomedical

B) insight

C) eclectic

D) behavioral

Answer: eclectic

51. _____, a _____ theorist, developed person-centered therapy.

A) Albert Ellis; cognitive

B) Albert Ellis; humanistic

C) Carl Rogers; cognitive

D) Carl Rogers; humanistic

Answer: Carl Rogers; humanistic

52. A client’s strong verbal ability and high level of self-awareness are LEAST necessary for the success of humanistic therapy. The therapeutic alliance does NOT include:

A) agreeableness.

B) empathy.

C) genuineness.

D) active listening.

Answer: agreeableness.

53. Systematic desensitization entails a combination of exposure therapy and an anxiety hierarchy. Cam is seeking help for his alcohol abuse. He consults a behavior therapist, who might recommend:

A) systematic desensitization.

B) aversion therapy.

C) flooding.

D) a token economy.

Answer: aversion therapy.

54. The ABC model is a feature of _____ therapy, developed by _____.

A) cognitive; Aaron Beck

B) cognitive; Albert Ellis

C) rational emotive behavioral; Aaron Beck

D) rational emotive behavioral; Albert Ellis

Answer: rational emotive behavioral; Albert Ellis

55. Which statement is TRUE?

A) Family therapy treats the family as an integrated system.

B) Family therapy treats the symptoms of specific disorders.

C) The course of family therapy is fairly lengthy.

D) Family therapy originated in the 1970s.

Answer: The course of family therapy is fairly lengthy.

56. Psychological treatment involving the Internet is MOST often called:

A) virtual therapy.

B) systematic desensitization.

C) e-therapy.

D) robotherapy.

Answer: e-therapy.

57. A research assistant is debriefing her participants. The research assistant is:

A) randomly assigning the participants to conditions.

B) telling participants about any deception used in the study.

C) telling participants that their participation is voluntary.

D) deceiving her participants.

Answer: telling participants about any deception used in the study.

58. People develop _____ when they generate an explanation for their own or others’ behavior.

A) appraisals

B) attitudes

C) attributions

D) inferences

Answer: attributions

59. Mrs. Parker visits a neighbor’s home for the first time. The house is cluttered and poorly kept. Mrs. Parker does not consider that her neighbor may be juggling two jobs, a lengthy commute, and the demands of child care. Instead, she simply concludes that her neighbor is a slob. Mrs. Parker is illustrating the:

A) fundamental attribution error.

B) just-world hypothesis.

C) false consensus effect.

D) self-serving bias.

Answer: fundamental attribution error.

60. Which example BEST illustrates cognitive dissonance?

A) Braden pulls over in his car when a police officer tells him to do so.

B) Julie assumes her friend is “being flaky” when she forgets a lunch date.

C) Boris dances at a party to feel accepted by the other guests.

D) Stephanie tells herself that smoking is okay because she only smokes a few cigarettes daily.

Answer: Stephanie tells herself that smoking is okay because she only smokes a few cigarettes daily.

61. Fear-inducing messages can increase persuasion: People are MOST persuadable when they are:

A) depressed.

B) bored.

C) hungry.

D) happy.

Answer: D) happy.

62. People may be more willing to grant a large favor if they have already granted a smaller one. This is the _____ technique.

A) door-in-the-face

B) false consensus

C) self-serving

D) foot-in-the-door

Answer: foot-in-the-door

63. The pioneering “line-length” studies of conformity were conducted by Solomon Asch: During the Nuremberg trials in the 1960s, Nazi officers argued that they were “just following orders,” in an attempt to shift responsibility for the deaths of millions of Jews to their superiors. Findings from which researcher would support this defense?

A) Ajzen

B) Sternberg

C) Asch

D) Milgram

Answer: Milgram

64. In moderately dangerous situations, the likelihood that a victim will receive help is _____ related to the number of bystanders present. In extremely dangerous situations, the likelihood that a victim will receive help is _____ related to the number of bystanders present.

A) negatively; negatively

B) negatively; positively

C) positively; negatively

D) positively; positively

Answer: negatively; positively

65. The textbook states that “[because] females run a greater risk of bodily injury resulting from a physical confrontation . . . they tend to opt for more relational aggression.” This statement is MOST closely consistent with the evolutionary perspective in psychology.The cognitive component of a prejudicial attitude is _____, whereas its affective component is _____.

A) a stereotype; prejudice

B) prejudice; a stereotype

C) discrimination; prejudice

D) a stereotype; discrimination

Answer: a stereotype; prejudice

66. Josh and Donna are discussing the latest release by their favorite band. “I didn’t like it at first, but now that I’ve played it a few times, I love it!” Donna states. Donna’s remark exemplifies the _____ effect.

A) bystander

B) mere-exposure

C) false consensus

D) foot-in-the-door

Answer: mere-exposure

67. Applications like Skype and FaceTime have changed the notion of proximity as a factor involved interpersonal attraction. Jayne and Richie have been married for 10 years. However, there is little real intimacy in their relationship; instead, it is based mainly on their sexual chemistry. Jayne and Richie are experiencing _____ love.

A) companionate

B) consummate

C) fatuous

D) romantic

Answer: consummate

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